Sunday, April 7, 2019

Decoding Property Tax

                                                     Introduction

One of the unexplored areas of law is Property taxation very few people intent to know why the property tax bills are to levy and charged for, it is one of the most important revenue sources to the government treasury.  This article to explain various ways of appeal available to the taxpayers and Methodology in calculating the property tax.

Legislative act
Classification of property  tax assessment is based on where the said property situated if it falls on under Municipal corporation limit the respective act is applicable for eg If the property is in Chennai
Tax levy provision will be followed as per Chennai city municipal corporation act 1919 and said property falls outside the jurisdiction of the city than The Tamil Nadu District Municipalities Act Rules will be applicable.

Stage of appeal  

Taxation appeal forum

If the Taxpayer feel the property tax is incorrectly assessed then  they  can write to the regional deputy commissioner /Assistant revenue officer of the corporation request to re-assessment of the tax
If the taxpayer not satisfied with the assessment to follow the stages of appeal

                                 Taxation Appellate Tribunal
                                                
                                           City Civil Court
                                                      
                                               High Court
Method of Calculation

1.     Monthly Rental Value with respect to each building
2.     Floor details
3.     Area Square Feet
4.     Type of construction
5.     Usage
6.     Occupancy
7.     Rate
8.     Calculation
9.     Owner/Semi-Permanent rebate
10.   Monthly Rental Amount

Residential or Commercial   
Based on the above formula and others factors to take into consideration such as the age of the building,nature of the building and other aspects prevailing in the premises and also the years of assessments to be made in respect of the buildings area of the property rate to be fixed by the corporation in levying  the property tax.

Case law

Municipal Tax Appeal No: 7/2016

J.Anusuya  Vs The Commissioner

In the above, the case the appellant  (commercial )has not satisfied with the final assessment order made by the respondent, so filed an appeal before the tribunal in the T.A.T No 15/2015

   2. The facts necessary for the disposal of this appeal are as follows: 

The appellant owns a building situated at   35­37,   G.N.   Chetty   Road,   T.   Nagar, Chennai 17, consisting of Basement Floors I and II, Ground Floor, I floor to 13th Floors. Out of which, Basements I and II, Ground Floor, I Floor, 2nd floor and 13th floor are used for car parking,   shops, Restaurants and other non-residential purpose or commercial purpose.  3rd floor to 13th floor consists of rooms in various types. 
The tax was increased to Rs.45,09,721/­ w.e.f. I/13­2014  and Final notice were issued on 20.3.2015 under Notice No.10/14­15/8689.

3.   The appellant, not satisfied with the Final Assessment order made by the respondent, has preferred the appeal before the Tribunal in T.A.T.No.15/2015.

4.   Before the Tribunal the appellant herein contended that while calculating the property tax, the respondent Corporation has to consider the classification only with regard to commercial or residential and the tax ought to be assessed as per Sec.100 of the CCMC Act 1919. The respondent ought to have arrived the Annual value of the building only with reference to the provision of the Tamil Nadu Buildings(Lease and Rent Control) Act 1960 that deal with fixation of fair rent of the buildings.   The revision in the Annual value could only be for specific grounds such as the increase in area in the building, increase in the rent and addition or alterations in the buildings etc., The plinth area alone cannot be adopted for fixation of property tax. 
The respondent calculated the property tax on the basis of the rate per square feet, which is arbitrary and irrational. 

The facilities given by the appellant hotel and the maintenance services are not considered by the Corporation.  
The Commissioner has passed final order without following the rules 
laid down by the law. 
The tax fixed by the Commissioner is excessive and exorbitant and that therefore,
 the Final Assessment order is to be set aside.  

5.  On the other hand, the respondent Corporation has submitted that the appellant is running a five-star hotel in the heart of Chennai City and room tariff is ranging from Rs.4000 to Rs.25,000/­. 

The property tax is made on the basis of the extent type of roof and usage of the property after giving a necessary rebate, if applicable.  The annual rental value of the property is fixed in accordance with the usage of the property at the time of assessment basic rate.   

The assessment of appellant hotel is under the category of non-residential and the basement to the 2nd floor of the appellant hotel has been assessed on square feet basis and the assessment of the 3rd floor to 12th floor was made under the room tariff provided by the appellant.  As per IV part 1, A 1C(ii) and (vii) of CCMC Act 1919, totally built up area with all infrastructures have been taken into account for assessment and the open area has not been assessed.  

The assessment of property tax on Hotels and Lodges in Madras City is supported by G.O.Ms.No.856, dated 19.4.1972 by the Rural Development and Local Administration Department.  As per Sec.137(B), CCMC Act 1919, property tax can be assessed in case of escape from assessment.  

The appellant has not paid the property tax arrears for the period from II/2014­2015 which amount to Rs.1,63,92,031/­.   

Hence, prayed to dismiss the appeal. 

6.     both sides,   the come to the conclusion that the appellant is liable to pay the tax as demanded by the respondent Corporation and there is no valid reason to interfere with the orders passed by the Commissioner and the Tribunal has dismissed the appeal. 


7.  Aggrieved by the Order of the Tribunal, the appellant has preferred this appeal.


The grounds of appeal are as follows:


The order of the Tribunal is wholly unconscionable in law, contrary to materials on record.  

As per the decisions of the Apex Court as well as Hon’ble High Court, the tax is to be assessed following Sec.4 of Tamil Nadu Buildings(Lease and Rent) Control Act.  The 4 respondent Corporation failed to appreciate that the 3rd to 12th floors were also similar to basement 1st floor, basement 2nd floor, ground floor, 1st floor, 2nd floor and 13th floor. The respondent erred in accepting the principles relied on authorities of the Corporation of Chennai, namely, a basic rate per sq.ft.   x built-up area for calculation of property tax.   


The conclusion that the income derived per day received by the appellant is Rs.9,98,809/based on the tariff furnished by the appellant is totally wrong.  

Even in a peak season, occupancy of any hotel would not be more than 60%.  
The respondent Corporation grossly erred in overlooking the judgments of the Hon’ble Supreme court and also overlooked GO.Ms.No.856, dated 19.4.72.  

The tax levied on the basis of the tariff for each room in 3rd to 12th floors of the appellant building is false.     

The respondent failed to appreciate the service tax levied by the Central government on rooms in star hotels and also the Luxury tax levied by the State Government. 

Sec.29(1) of CCMC Act 1919 has no connection in levying a property tax. The amenities extended by the appellant hotel were not considered by the respondent while assessing a tax.     

Sec.99 and 100 of CCMC Act 1919 were not followed while assessing the property tax.   The Tribunal failed to appreciate that fixing the half-yearly property tax at Rs.44,52,620/­ is totally unreasonable.     

Therefore, prayed to allow the appeal setting aside the order of the Taxation Appeals Tribunal.        8.  The point that arises for consideration is

                  (i) Whether the order of the Tribunal is liable to be set aside?

9. POINT:­                     
 The appellant would contend that the respondent’s orders and the Tribunal’s order are perse arbitrary, not well considered and are not good orders in law and are contrary to materials on record. 

The appellant would also contend that as per the decisions 

of the Hon’ble Apex Court as well as the decisions of the Hon’ble High Courts, 

the tax is to be assessed as per the provisions of Section 4 of Tamil Nadu Buildings
(Lease and Rent) Control Act but the respondent­

Corporation failed to appreciate that the 3rd to 12th floors were also similar to basement 1st floor, basement 2nd floor, ground floor, 1st floor, 2nd floor and 13th floor and that the respondent erred in accepting the principles relied on by the authorities of the Corporation of Chennai, namely, a basic rate per sq.ft.  x built-up area for 5 calculation of property tax. 

 The conclusion that the income derived per day by the appellant is Rs.9,98,809/­, based on the tariff furnished by the appellant is totally wrong. 
Even in a peak season, occupancy of any hotel would not be more than 60%.   The respondent corporation grossly erred in overlooking the judgments of the Hon'ble Supreme court and also overlooked GO.Ms.No.856, dated 19.4.72.  

The tax levied on the basis of the tariff for each room in 3rd to 12th floors of the appellant building is false.   

The respondent failed to appreciate the service tax levied by the Central government on rooms in star hotels and also the Luxury tax levied by the State Government. 
Sec.29(1) of CCMC Act 1919 has no connection in levying a property tax. The amenities extended by the appellant hotel were not considered by the respondent while assessing a tax.     

Sec.99 and 100 of CCMC Act 1919 were not followed while assessing the property tax.   The Tribunal failed to appreciate that fixing the half-yearly property tax at Rs.44,52,620/­ is totally unreasonable.                 

10. The learned counsel for the appellant would argue that the respondent has been paying the half-yearly tax of Rs.8,68,372/­ and the same has been increased to Rs.45,09,721/­ w.e.f. I/13­2014 without proper assessment. 
Only based on the tariff rate of rooms, the tax has been fixed but Sec.92(2) of the CCMC Act is very clear that the Annual value of the land and building has to be fixed. The rental amount would differ from month to month and Sec.100(2) has categorically stated that the rental amount need not been taken into consideration. He would further argue that the building as a whole from the ground floor, 1 to 13 floor was considered but the tax levied on the basis of the tariff for each room in 3rd to 12th floors of the appellant building. 

The tax assessed for 2nd and 13th floor has been assessed at 5.25 per sq.ft. Further, the learned counsel argued that the entire rooms in the hotel were not booked throughout the year and also the amenities are given to the customers by way of free at the time of booking the rooms, 
all were not considered by the respondent but they have simply enhanced the tax without stating any reason.

11. On the other hand, the respondent contends that the appellant is running a five-star hotel heart of Chennai room tariff is ranging from Rs.4000   to Rs.25,000/­. The property tax is made on the basis of the extent type of roof and usage of 6 the property after giving a necessary rebate, if applicable. The annual rental value of the property is fixed in accordance with the usage of the property at the time of assessment based on a basic rate. The usage of the buildings are divided into two categories, one is residential and the other one is non-residential.   

The appellant hotel is under the category of non-residential and the basement to the 2nd floor of the appellant hotel has been assessed on square feet basis and the assessment of the 3rd floor to 12th floor was made under the room tariff provided by the appellant.  

As per IV part 1, A 1C(ii) and (vii) of CCMC Act 1919, the total built-up area with all infrastructures have been taken into account for assessment and the open area has not been assessed.  The assessment of property tax on Hotels and Lodges in Madras City is supported by G.O.Ms.No.856, dated 19.4.1972 by the Rural Development and Local Administration Department.  

As per Sec.137(B) of the CCMC Act 1919, property tax can be assessed in case of escape from assessment.  The appellant has not paid the property tax arrears for the period from   II/2014­2015 which amount to Rs.1,63,92,031/­ and as such prayed for the dismissal of the appeal.  

12. On careful consideration of the submission put forth on either side, the appellant has come forward with this appeal as against the order of the Tribunal. Admittedly, the appellant is running a five-star hotel in a posh area of the city and the tax has been fixed based on the room tariff. 

The hotel comes under a non-residential category for assessment of tax. The appellant himself admitted that the tax for 3rd to 12th floor has been fixed only based on the room tariff and 2nd and 13th floor fixed at Rs.5.25 per sq.ft. The tariff rate has been provided by the appellant and the respondent has taken into consideration of the tariff/per day and calculated into 365 days and taken into consideration and fixed the annual rental value.  The only objection raised by the appellant herein is that the entire room in the hotel is not fully occupied throughout the year. Even in the season time 60% of the rooms only occupied and therefore, the tax cannot be fixed on room tariff. 

13.  The power to access property tax by the corporation flows from Sec.99 to 109 of the Chennai City Municipal Corporation Act 1919, sec 99(2 & 3) of the Act reads :­ 7 (2)   save   as   otherwise   provided   in   this   Act,   
these   taxes   shall   be   levied   at   such percentage of the annual value of the building and lands as may be fixed 

by the council: Provided that the aggregate of the percentage so fixed 
shall not in the case of any land or building, be less than 15 per cent, or greater than
(25) per cent of its annual value. 

(3) For the purpose of assessing the property tax, the annual value of any building or land shall be determined by the Commissioner 

Further sec 100(2) would also read as such, 

(2) The annual value of lands and buildings shall be deemed to be the gross annual rent at which they may (at the time of assessment) reasonably 
to be expected to let from month to month or from year to year 
(less a deduction, in the case of a building, often per cent of that portion on such annual rent which is attributed to the building alone, 
apart from their sites and the adjacent lands 
occupied as an appurtenance thereto) and the said deduction shall be in lieu of all allowance for repair or on any other account whatever: 

Provided that (a) In the case of (i) Any government or railway building; or (ii)  

Any building of a class not ordinarily let the gross annual rent of which Cannot in the opinion of the commissioner be estimated the annual value of the premises shall be deemed to be six per cent of the total of the 
estimated market value of the land at the time of assessment and the estimated cost of 
erecting the building at such time after deducting for depreciation a reasonable amount which shall in no case be less than ten per cent of such cost and 
(b) By machinery (any furniture) shall be excluded from valuations under this section.              
14.  From the above its clear that annual rental value is to determined by the commissioner taking into account, the gross annual rent expected on the property being let out from year to year. 

Based on this determination of annual rental value the act provided for the levy of tax between 15% to 25% of the annual value. 8 14. 
With the aforesaid powers handed over to the commissioner, the government which  was   in  receipt   of  representation   with  hotelier  Association  has   issued  a  G.O.   in G.O.Ms.No.856   Rural   Development   under   Local   Administrative   Department  dated 19.4.1972 which reads as follows: “Government of Tamil Nadu “Abstract ­Tax – Property Tax – Madras Corporation  ­ Levy of Property Tax on Hotels and Lodges in Madras City – Proposals  ­ Agreed.             


The   Honorary Secretary and Treasurer,   South   India Hotels and Restaurants' Association, Madras has represented that the property taxes in respect of the hotels and restaurants in the Madras City have been abnormally increased and that the increase, has been done arbitrarily.  

He has further represented that the expenses involved in maintaining a hotel together with the amenities and services rendered should be taken into account while an individual hotel is assessed to property tax and that the salaries of staff, provident fund, washing and laundry, maintenance of furniture and sanitation should have the first claim over the room revenue.

The President of the Madras City Lodge Owners’ Association, Madras, has also represented that the criteria in arriving at the rates by the Corporation of Madras in respect of the Hotels and Lodging Houses is not in conformity with the principle and that the entire issue required rethinking and revision.

2.   referred to the   Commissioner, Corporation of Madras.    

The   Commissioner,   Corporation   of   Madras   has   suggested   the   following classification of hotels and lodges and the procedure of assessment of the said hotels and lodges to property tax:­


1. Posh Hotels & Lodging Houses.  Annual value to be assessed by taking                                                                               rental value for lodge portions at                                                                                      10% of the gross income that may be                                                                                realised, if all rooms are occupied throughout                                                                    the year plus reasonable letting value for other                                                                  portions like restaurant, shops, etc;

2. ‘A’ Class Hotels and Lodging  9 Houses Annual value to be assessed by taking  rental value for lodge portions at 30% of the  gross income that may be realised, if all the  rooms are occupied throughout the year    plus reasonable letting value for other  portions like restaurant, shops, etc;


3.‘B' Class Hotels and Lodging     Houses     Annual value to be assessed by taking rental value for lodge portions at 25% of the gross income that may be realised, if all rooms are occupied throughout the year plus reasonable letting value portions like restaurant, shops, etc;             

15. It is clear that the above G.O. holds the field levying of the tax on hotels and lodging houses.  The G.O. classifies the hotels and lodging houses in 3 categories of hotels.  In the case on hand, it is admitted fact that the respondent hotel falls under the 1st category of "Posh hotels and lodging houses.  

The G.O fixes the tax at 10% of the rental value for the lodging portions. The commissioner had fixed the annual value of the premises at Rs. 3,63,68,721/­ and assessed the tax at Rs.45,09,721/­ w.e.f. I/13­14.

16.   The appellant would state that the annual value fixed by the Corporation was based on the Tariff given by the respondent. Though the respondent had denied the tariff are to be the actual tariffs levied by them on their customer throughout the year, no documents have been produced to substantiate the same and to decry tariff includes amenities etc., That being so, the annual value arrived at by the Corporation based on the rental value cannot be faulted with.

  17. The other plank of a challenge is that the Corporation has failed to consider the alleged fact that the vacancy position of the lodging rooms has not been considered.  The respondent would allege that the annual rental value has been wrongly calculated in a 10 straight jacket formula without reference to the fact that several of the rooms have remained unoccupied for several days which requires proper rebate and concession.

18. To this argument, the answer lies even in the act itself. 

Sec.105 of the Act would read thus under, Sec.105 vacancy remission:

1. When any building whether ordinarily let or occupied by the owner himself has been vacant and unlet for thirty or more consecutive days in any half year, 
the Commissioner shall remit so much, not exceeding one half of such portion 
of the tax as relates to the buildings only as is proportionate to the number of days during which the building was vacant and unlet in the half year.

2. Every claim for revision under sub­section(1) shall be made during the half­ year in respect of which the remission is sought or in the following half­year and not afterwards.

3. (a) no claim for such remission shall be entertained unless the owner of the building or his agent has previously thereto delivered the notice to the Commissioner­ 

(i) That the building is vacant and unlet; or 

(ii) That the building will be vacant and unlet from a specified date either in half­year in which notice is delivered or in the succeeding half­year. 

(b) The period in respect of which the remission is made shall be calculated ­ 

(i) if remission is sought in respect of the half year succeeding that in which a  notice is delivered, from the date of delivery of the notice or from the date on which the building became vacant and unled, whichever is later; and 

(ii) If remission is sought in respect of the half year succeeding that in which the notice is delivered, from the commencement of the half year in respect 
which remission is sought or from the date on which the building became vacant and unlet, whichever is later 

(C)every notice under clause (a) shall expire with the half year succeeding that during which it is so delivered, and shall have no effect thereafter.  


19. From the above, it is clear that the appellant hotel ought to have informed and sought for remission within the respective half year.  

No record has been produced to show that at any point of time the appellant hotel has either informed the vacancy position or the remission of tax was sought in the previous half year sighting vacancy in an occupation of their rooms.   Therefore, a plea would fall flat in the substantive material. 

Therefore, the assessment made by the respondent Corporation is in accordance with law and the order of the Tribunal confirming the assessment made by the Corporation need not be interfered.  Hence, the appeal is liable to be dismissed.  Point is answered accordingly.   

20. In the result, this appeal is dismissed and the order of the Taxation Appeals Tribunal dated 2.11.2016   in   T.A.T.No.15/15, as well as the Final Notice of the Commissioner, Corporation of Chennai, dated 20.3.2015 under Notice No.10/14­15/8689, are hereby confirmed.

To sum up the conclusion in the words of Hon'ble Mr Justice S.M.Subramaniam

Payment of property is a duty of the citizen. Every citizen are utilizing common infrastructure facilities and amenities provided by the Government. They bound to pay the property tax within the time stipulated. Non-payment of property tax is to be construed as an infringement of the right of all other citizens. In the event of utilizing all such common facilities without paying the property tax, the assessee should remind himself that he is utilizing all such amenities at the cost of other taxpayers, who are all promptly paying the property tax, Thus non-payment of property tax infringes the rights of all citizen.



Sunday, March 31, 2019

Unmanned Aerial Vehicle at your service


We are in time so proud of our military might easing of regulation in the aviation sector particular from the usage of the unmanned aerial vehicle for the civilians will bring more revenue and employment opportunity. 

The word drone, not common buzz word uses of everyone. many recall that word related with for a military purpose. Yes it is not any more usage of drones for commercial purposes

After the recent relaxation of license by the government of India. Civilian use of drone goes beyond military purposes to agriculture, damage assessment of property and life in areas affected with natural calamities, surveys (infrastructure monitoring including powerline facilities, ports, and pipelines; commercial photography;
aerial mapping), etc.

When the Amazon CEO Jeff Bezos explained his idea to use drones to Amazon customers in 20131Many raised eyebrows and questioned it is possible, 5 years later it becomes a new age industry.
They are also increasingly proliferating into the recreational field and Are likely to be used in many other domains. This article is to analyse the potential of income to earn and pros and cons for the new age sector

License
Over-Regulation will reduce the sector from achieving its full earning potential. Regulators cut red tape on drones is a welcome sign for the industry. Research Students, photographers and other professionals to use a drone without any license hassle. Below are the lists of drone categories which are exempted from the License.

RPA in Nano category intended to fly up to 50 feet (15 m) AGL in uncontrolled Airspace/ enclosed premises for commercial/recreational/ R&D purposes are Exempted from obtaining UIN.

RPAs (Remotely Piloted Aircraft ) owned/operated by NTRO(National Technical Research Organization), ARC (Aviation Research Centre ) and Central Intelligence Agencies are also exempted from obtaining UIN.
Civil RPA operators other than those mentioned in Para 7.2 shall require UAOP from DGCA.

Following entities will not require UAOP:
a) Nano RPA operating below 50 feet (15 m) AGL in uncontrolled airspace / enclosed premises.

b) Micro RPA operating below 200 feet (60 m) AGL in uncontrolled airspace / enclosed premises. However, the user shall intimate to the local police office 24 hours prior to the conduct of actual operations.

c) RPA owned and operated by the agencies as indicated in Para 6.5 of this CAR. 
However, the agency shall intimate local police officers and concerned ATS Units prior to the conduct of actual operations.

Fees
Another surprise news rate of fee is reasonable for obtaining UIN is ₹1000 for each drone, but for issue/ renewal of unmanned aircraft operator
permit (uaop) Fees for the issue of Permit is ₹25,000/-
2. Fees for renewal of Permit is ₹10,000/-

Approval department.
a) ETA from WPC Wing, Department of Telecommunication for RPA operating in the de-licensed frequency band(s), as applicable.
b) Security Clearance from MHA(Ministry of Home Affairs) in case of 6.1 (a) citizen of India, (c) By a company or a body corporate provided that:
i) it is registered and has its principal place of business within India;
ii) its chairman and at least two-thirds of its directors are citizens of India; and,
iii) its substantial ownership and effective control is vested in Indian
nationals & Indian company or corporate leasing RPAS from a company or corporate registered elsewhere than in India under 6.1, (d) not earlier than five years from the date of application for UIN.

However, individuals as indicated in Para 6.1 (a) shall either obtain security clearance from MHA or submit self-attested copies of at least two out of three valid identity proofs viz. Passport, Driving License or Aadhar Card.

In case of foreign remote pilots employed by Indian entity as per para 6.1 (b)( By the Central Government or any State Government or any company or
the corporation owned or controlled by either of the said Governments) or (c), and (d), DGCA shall forward documents for Security clearance to security agencies in accordance with the procedure being followed for Foreign Aircrew Temporary Authorization (FATA) pilots.


The application form for a security clearance is given at Annexure-II/III of this CAR.
As per para 6.3, The applicant shall submit a duly filled application (through Digital Sky Platform), as per Annexure IV of this CAR, along with requisite documents indicated in Para

6.2and applicable fee to DGCA. The UIN shall be issued in 02 working days, as per the format given at Annexure-V, provided all the documents are complete.

6.4 RPA in Nano category intended to fly up to 50 feet (15 m) AGL in uncontrolled airspace/ enclosed premises for commercial/recreational/ R&D purposes are exempted from obtaining UIN.

6.5 RPAs owned/operated by NTRO, ARC and Central Intelligence Agencies are also exempted from obtaining UIN.

6.6 In case of the entity specified under Para 6.1 (d) of this CAR, the Indian organization, who has taken RPAS on a lease, shall obtain the UIN.

Revenue.
The potential of revenue flow is more to India after the relaxation of licensing and the use of a drone to bring more revenue to government coffers.
The U.S. commercial drone sector is expected to generate $2.3 billion in investments next year. By 2025, its economic impact is set to almost double, forecast to surpass $5 billion 2
Goldman Sachs Research estimates a $100 billion global market opportunity for drone companies by 20202

Safety, Liability and Insurance Issues
Drones can be a lethal weapon or weapon of destruction if not properly regulated, recent example
PresidentNicolás Maduro ofVenezuelasurvive failed drone-assassination attempt
Drone operators can potentially be held liable for personal injuries and property damage as a result of flying their drone.

Under the tort theory of negligence, a drone operator could be held liable for losing control of their drone and allowing it to crash into a person or damage property.

Generally, in order to prevail in a drone accident lawsuit, the plaintiff must establish that the drone operator failed to exercise “reasonable care” while operating the drone.

In addition, the plaintiff will need to establish causation between the drone operator’s negligent acts and the claimed injuries. Consider a hypothetical where the drone is launched with low battery power which results in crash into passerby who sustains bodily harm. Successful recovery in drone personal injury litigation could include recovery for economic and non-economic losses.

Insurance can cover numerous issues including, “loss or damage to the UAV and associated equipment, coverage for aircraft operators, including other non-pilot, on-ground crew, manufacturer product liability, third-party legal liability, premises liability, aviation and premises medical payments, fire legal liability, independent contractors liability, personal injury, advertising liability, contractual liability, fellow employee coverage, war, hijacking and terrorism, damage to premises, property & office studio contents”4

In general, drone insurance consists of two separate types of coverage, (a) liability (a) liability and physical damage (or “hull”) provided for the owner/operator of the drone, and (b) products liability coverage for drone manufacturers and related UAV service providers.

Conclusion
The Drones should use for dangerous work like removing land mines, to deliver medicine essential item in flood, cyclone-affected areas. The policy and regulation to move on with the latest technological changes that should not be disruptive to any innovation. Although at the moment the cost of drones is still too high. This useful gadget will be part of our daily life for sure because of the high benefits.

References
1.https://www.usatoday.com/story/tech/2013/12/01/amazon-bezos-drone-delivery/379902
2.https://www.forbes.com/sites/niallmccarthy/2015/10/19/the-commercial-drone-sector-is-set-to-contribute-billions-to-the-u-s-economy-infographic/#346322882bdd
3. See:http://uavcoach.com/droneinsurance-guide/
4. Scott Carr, Ph.D. Director, Navigant Economics
Samuel L. Felker, Esq.
Matthew Grosack
Connie Lahn
https://www.americanbar.org/content/dam/aba/administrative/litigation/materials/2016_joint_cle/1_drone_on__final_of_outline.authcheckdam.pdf

Sunday, March 17, 2019

Drafting Criminal Rules of practice -2018

                                          Introduction      
          
        I am happy to share my suggestions in drafting Criminal Rules of practice -2018

The points I have suggested is to adapt to digital technology. We need to make the best use of technology.

This means the right service needs to be in place, including the correct assisted digital support, to make sure justice is accessible to all such techniques will speed up trials and it could also result in a greater ( or lesser burdensome) procedural delay.
Implementing this will, of course, reduce costs. But, far more critically, it will deliver better justice.

CHAPTER-II SUMMONSES  AND  WARRANTS 

5. Summonses:
Proposed Changes - 9) The particulars of examined by the  Doctor,  the date on which the number of the Wound Certificate or Accident Register or Postmortem  Certificate,  as the case may be, shall be mentioned, whenever possible, in the medical witnesses. 

(10)  The Court may issue summons to official witnesses through Heads of Departments where their present address is not definitely known.  The Court may, in such cases, issue a duplicate copy of the summons also direct to the witness either through post electronic communication or through the police in the address shown in report or complaint.

My Suggestion - Doctor to be summoned sooner or later to the court if Address proof of the doctor along with Mobile number be updated in a separate form. This will help to prosecute official while calling Medical witness to appear before the court on time.
 Chance of going to department heard to track the medical officer to find out the address is not required and police official able to issue summon possibility of not issuing summons will be reduced to the maximum.

The success of any investigation depends largely on the accuracy and detail of the  about witnesses

Information. With reliable information, we can prevent/ avoid planting stock witness by the law enforcement official.


2-) Arrest is transmitted to another court or sent to the post for execution,  the  Head  Ministerial  Officer shall record the register referred to in sub-rule (4). (7)  A whom a warrant is directed shall send a report to the beginning from the date of receipt of it is executed, steps were taken for executing the same.  Every warrant of  Additional Testimony or Exhibits. If the judge considers additional testimony or exhibits, the judge must: (i) have the testimony recorded verbatim by an electronic recording device, by a court reporter, or in writing; (ii) have any recording or reporter’s notes transcribed, have the transcription certified as accurate, and file it;

Suggestion - Delayed execution of arrest warrant may jeopardize the proceedings State v. Long 2003  (STATE OF KANSAS)

The 75-day delay was unreasonable when the sheriff's efforts to execute the warrant were limited to inputting the warrant in the National Criminal Information Center computer without making any independent attempts to verify the defendant's address
Amending required from 90 days to 60 days

                           CHAPTER   -  IV INVESTIGATION

12 Recording  of  Dying  Declaration:

Proposed changes 4) The declaration should the words of the far as possible.  The gather from the persons referred to in the declaration.  put to every answer or in reply shall be recorded. 

(5)  a declaration is recorded, over to his signature or finger impression obtained thereon, if possible, and then,   the sign the statement. 

(6)   of the declarant, he may, if possible, he shall record electronic device.

(8) the process,  the Magistrate shall entries in Judicial  Form  No.11.

Suggestions –

There is no specific guideline or parameter to define the admissibility of a dying declaration; it can be verbal/ oral or written. It can be partly oral or partly written, at times it can be recorded when the declarant uses gestures or signs to give dying declaration

Recording device should be enabled time and date options while recording dying

Declaration. By doing that falsify of a timing of recording evidence via paperwork be curtailed
 material evidence / if required gesture, sign language interpreter be called for confirmation
Of information. 

The necessity of using the time stamp in recording declaration/interrogation. Is clearly see in the case the UNITED STATES OF AMERICA,   Plaintiff, Vs COMBAT YODPRASIT,  Defendant
(2016)  Case 5:15-cr-04085-MWB  IN THE UNITED STATES DISTRICT COURT FOR THE NORTHERN
DISTRICT OF IOWA WESTERN DIVISION    
  
                               CHAPTER  - V BAIL  AND  SURETIES


To  avoid  abscondence  of  accused
that it subscribe to his signature name and designation.

Comments- The addressing authority must also mention the address of service – Without it

The genuineness of addressing authority can't be identified at the later stage of a case (if required)


                                          CHAPTER  VII 
      
            GENERAL  INSTRUCTIONS  TO  ALL  CRIMINAL  COURTS

37-  Material be labelled: the object should have, affixed to it,  a show the number case to which and the party it has been received.    should also bear the property register.    

The  label  should  be printed  in  the  following  form:
Property  Register  No. Case  No. Name  of  the person: From  whom  received  with  address :

Suggestion – To add an additional column in the address Field as permanent as well as temporary
Address.

If the material received from the party partly or fully damaged – Penalty
Amount to mention subject to the discretion of the valuer or amount to describe.
If cash any received to specify will be deposited in the nationalised bank


                                          CHAPTER  XV
                                         HIGH  COURT

120 -  Judgment   and   orders   to   be  dispatched   with promptness:
 The order of the  High Court in, or relating to a file shall be Courts with the least possible delay.

Suggestion -  In paragraph 120 after “With the least possible delay” substitute “10 days ”,

Days should be specified within orders to be dispatched to the lower Court.


                                            CHAPTER  - XX 

SUPERVISION  OF  SUBORDINATE  CRIMINAL  COURTS  & ANNUAL INSPECTION

184- Inspection  of  Courts  by  Chief  Judicial  Magistrates and  Judicial  Magistrates:

Reports  of  the  inspection  should  be  submitted  to  the  High Court   by   the   Chief   Judicial   Magistrate   concerned/the   Chief Metropolitan   Magistrate,   in   Administrative   Form   Nos.52   and   60 respectively,  with  the  least  practicable  delay
Suggestion -  In paragraph 184 after “With the least possible delay” substitute “10 days ”,
- Days should be specific, that will lower procedural delay.

                         CHAPTER   -  XXII CERTIFIED  COPIES

206 Return  of  defective  applications:
of defective applications: of defects,  a  limit days shall be their re-presentation.  A defective period specified above, by the Head  Ministerial  Officer.

Comments-  seven days be replaced with 3 days

Additional Testimony or Exhibits. If the judge considers additional testimony or exhibits, the judge must: (i) have the testimony recorded verbatim by an electronic recording device, by a court reporter, or in writing; (ii) have any recording or reporter’s notes transcribed, have the transcription certified as accurate, and file it;

Warrant by Telephone or Other Means.   a magistrate judge may issue an arrest warrant or summons based on information communicated by telephone or other reliable electronic means.


The High Court shall promulgate rules to facilitate the taking of testimony by telephone, audio-visual means or other electronic means.



Conclusion

I have endeavoured to show that information technology is now a tool essential for modernisation of a judiciary or judicial system

I have humbly suggested these above suggestions in order to have better use of technology to take full benefit of what Information Technology offers.

 As Carr J put it recently in Su-Ling v Goldman Sachs International when setting out the principles to be derived from, amongst others, Mitchell ‘The achievement of justice means something different now. Parties can no longer expect indulgence if they fail to comply with their procedural obligations because those obligations not only serve the purpose of ensuring that they conduct the litigation proportionately in order to ensure their own costs are kept within proportionate bounds but also the wider public interest of ensuring that other litigants can obtain justice efficiently and proportionately and that the courts enable them to do so. [2015] EWHC 759 (Comm) at [38]



Sunday, March 3, 2019

Complaint anonymously to protect children (https://cybercrime.gov.in)


Most of the victim's first thing imprinted in their mind to lodge any complaint to law enforcement

The officer is, will they take action? 

Need to report police station every day will impact our work.
The first thing we need to get rid of that assumption.

With the usage of smartphone user increase day by day, so it is a cybercrime report. We can see children play with toys has been considerably reduced which replaced by mobile internet.

It's our duty to safeguard our children in the borderless cyberworld.


Thus Hon'ble  Supreme court of India under the matter of Suo Moto Option in the writ petition  (C) No. 56/2004 titled Prajwala vs Union of India and Others has directed to impleaded NALSA (National Legal Services Authority)  to examine and submit the report for prevention of women and children to sexual exploitation.


The main object of this portal is to accept complaint anonymously with related to the remove child porn, children related to sexually abusive material like rape/ gang rape content from the online. As per the direction of Hon'ble Supreme Court under the matter of Suo Motu Writ Petition no.3/2015.

         
Any individual can lodge the complaint without disclosing their identity
user to share the details of the suspect. Any information provided will be kept confidential and it helps during the investigation.
do mention origin /place of incident and city in detail on the portal that helps law enforcement officer and cybersecurity official to report to the concerned online platform for removal of the content and stop spreading.

 If the individual wants to know the status of the case, then they need to register in the portal OTP will be sent to user mobile number to authenticate and then one has to proceed for registration.

                                  Workflow of the complaint


                                 Cybersecurity Nodal Agency

                                                    ↓

                                 State Cybersecurity division

                                                     ↓

                                      District Level Agency

Special Inspector General of Police is designated as the Nodal Cyber Cell for the CCPWC Online portal. All police units of states have a designated Nodal officer (district-wise) to deal with the complaints received on the portal.

Once the case is registered on the portal,  Cyber-office will forward the case to the concerned police station to take action i.e. based on the information and investigations thereof. Police stations can register FIR/NC/ Enquiry and submit a report of action taken to Cyber police official will update respective report on the portal within a stipulated time period.


         Please note that this portal to take complaint with online Child Pornography/ Rape/ Gang Rape (CP/ R/GR) content only.


Every now and then all web browsers provide child safety measure. Most important as parents we need to set up stricter settings when the kids go online. It is like to maintain good two-way communication between us and our kids. Parents should check often our kid's internet activities to ensure using the internet to get the information for our needs.

This portal to work based on the information shared by the citizen only, every day we come across many talks about such incident happened to prevent for occurring again to anybody, each citizen participation is required instead of making comments that it should be removed just take a small step forward lodge complaint anonymously.
See the difference.

Do share this information to create awareness.







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